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Lord_of_Minas_Morgul_75
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Post Perfect Tense vs. Past Tense
on: November 07, 2004 12:30
In the end of the Perfect Tense part of lesson eight it says that there is no auxillary verb (has or have) in the pefect tense, it is just one word. Well, if that's true then what is the differnece between the perfect tense and the past tense? I am so very confused
dirk_math
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Post RE: Perfect Tense vs. Past Tense
on: November 07, 2004 08:51
The essence of the Perfect tense is that the action of the verb is finished but that its influence is still felt.

When you say 'I have eaten' you mean that you have finished eating but you still feel the effect: so you're not hungry anymore.
When you say 'I ate' or 'I was eating' this is not so, in this case we simply say: a while a ago I ate something but it doesn't matter how long ago.

In Quenya 'I have eaten' is translated by one word only: amátien, so you should not try to translate each word separately. Because of this there is no need for an auxiliary verb.
Yassë engë lómë, anarties calali.
Lord_of_Minas_Morgul_75
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Post RE: Perfect Tense vs. Past Tense
on: November 08, 2004 01:52
OH!!!! I get it Thanks
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