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Fallendil
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Post Grammar Question: "to be" (ëa vs. ná)
on: January 11, 2005 11:22
What part of speach is "sinome"? For instance, if I want to say,"Your horse is here." would I say,"Roccolya ná sinome." or "Roccolya ná sinomesse."?

[Edited on 28/4/2005 by Malinornë]
dirk_math
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Post RE: Grammar Question: "to be" (ëa vs. ná)
on: January 11, 2005 01:57
The word sinomë is an adverb of place, and adverbs cannot get case-endings, so *sinomessë is certainly not allowed.

But the problem with your sentence is the verb 'to be'. Quenya has two verbs that mean 'to be': ná and ëa. When 'to be' is used to denote 'exist' or 'be somewhere' you have to use ëa.

So the correct sentence is: Roccolya ëa sinomë.
Yassë engë lómë, anarties calali.
Fallendil
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Post RE: Grammar Question: "to be" (ëa vs. ná)
on: January 11, 2005 02:14
Thank you!
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