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Lenielestel
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Post 2nd person verb endings
on: April 30, 2014 07:50
I'm full of questions today!

I just saw this language analysis of the Hobbit (including lines that didn't make it into the movie). I failed to save the website, so I can't say where I read it. This line intrigued me:

3. Nauthon i miruvor ammen; man pedidh? 
‘Should we have a glass of wine?’ (lit. ‘I think about miruvor for us. What you say?’)
[snipped]
pedidh v. ‘you speak’; cf. ped- ‘speak’ + *-dh ‘thou’ (second-person familiar pronoun)

Shouldn't that be "pedig"? Or am I confused again?

In my notes from many places, the only place I see the -dh ending is labelled "Doriathrin, FORMAL second person"

Since I don't know who is supposed to have said this line, it is conceivable that the speaker used to live in Doriath, of course. But just going off the translation/explanation, I wanted to make sure I hadn't misunderstood.
Galadivren
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on: May 01, 2014 03:39
There is also the issue that despite new knowledge of Sindarin pronouns coming out in 2007, David Salo needed to match the Sindarin of the Hobbit to the Sindarin of the Lord of the Rings for continuity (which was written circa 2000 ish).
Lenielestel
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on: May 01, 2014 01:43
That I understand, although I noticed (with glee) some of the new stuff in Desolation of Smaug. But if that was the issue, it would have been "pedich," right? I guess my real wondering was, is there a -dh ending in the second person that I have missed?
Galadivren
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on: May 01, 2014 01:48
Oh yes indeed, there is a listed -dh 2nd person ending in Parma Eldalamberon #17.
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